I would like to start this article off by reminding my readers of the value, and the importance of the word of God. Not from your perspective or mine for that matter. But from Scripture. What testimony of God’s word do the scriptures give? In essence, what does God himself say about his word? Let me be clear. God himself, gives attributes to His written word (the scriptures) the same attributes and or characteristics that He attributes to Himself.
Examples:
GOD IS LIGHT AND HIS WORD (SCRIPTURE) IS LIGHT AS WELL
1 John 1:5 – God is light
Psalms 119:105 – Thy word is a lamp unto my feet, and a light unto my path.
Proverbs 6:23 – For the commandment is a lamp; and the law is light
Concerning Jesus we read:
John 1:6-7 – 6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. 7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.
GOD SAVES OUR SOUL AND THE WORD (SCRIPTURE) DOES AS WELL
Psalms 72:13 – and shall save the souls of the needy
James 1:21 – receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls.
GOD SANCTIFIES BELIEVERS AND HIS WORD (SCRIPTURE) DOES AS WELL
I Thess. 5:23 – And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly;
John 17:17 – Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.
GOD AND HIS WORD (SCRIPTURE) WILL JUDGE IN THE LAST DAY
1 Peter 4:5 – Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead.
John 12:48 – He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.
Why is this so important?
Because, how you study the word is hinged upon how you view the word. Let’s go a little further in what scriptures say about the written word of God.
Jesus said, “It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.” Matthew 4:4. If it was written, where is it? It is in Deuteronomy 8:3 which says, “man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live.”
Look at Ps 138:2 – “I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.”
Notice… This is what David is saying God has done. “for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name”
Look at Psalms 12:6-7 – 6 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. 7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.
Does Psalms 12:7 say the Prophets will keep and preserve His word? No. Does it say the HEBREW OR THE GREEK LANGUAGES will preserve His word? No? Does it say He would use TRANSLATORS or men to preserve His word. Are men in control of the universe? Is the universe more important to God than His word?
And what language does God speak anyway? What is the Fathers language? Afterall, it is written, “For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven.” Psa 119:89. What language is the word in heaven settled in? Hebrew? Greek? English?
Question: Who told you there were errors in the Bible? Did the Bible tell you this or some theologian, scholar, pastor or friend of yours?
I have talked to many people over the years about Easter and other alleged errors in the KJV. And to this day, no one has ever shown me an error in the KJV. Let me say this, 99% of people who say the KJV has errors in it, are referring to something they read or studying in Greek or Hebrew. Basically, they’re not showing me errors in the KJV; they’re showing me where they believe the KJV has errors based on Hebrew and or Greek text.
The fascinating thing is that 99% of these people don’t know Hebrew or Greek. In Fact, they’re reading the definition of Hebrew and Greek words in English. The irony. The least they could do is read the definition of the Hebrew and Greek words in Hebrew and Greek dictionaries? But even then, they would have to translate that into English?
The Bible actually shows you how translation works. In fact, you can see how Hebrew and Greek translate differently from each other directly in your Bible.
Going back to Matthew 4:4 and Deutoronomy 8:3 that I showed earlier. Look at how they differ from each other.
Deut 8:3 – man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live.
Now look at what Matthew 4:4 says, “Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.”
Wait, did Jesus misquote Moses? Did Jesus add and take away from Moses?
Jesus forgot to say, DOTH, ONLY, and LORD…
Jesus added, God.
Is Jesus guilty of adding and taking away from the word of God. OR! Was Jesus simply saying the same thing Moses wrote in another language? My position is the latter.
And what about Noah?
In the OT Hebrew writings his name is spelled NOAH. But Matthew spells his name NOE in the NT writings.
Gen 5:29 – Noah
Mat 24:37 – Noe
Was Matthew wrong? OR! Is this another example of my bible showing me the difference between two languages?
The point is this. Hebrew is not Greek, and Greek is not Aramaic, and neither of these three are English. Therefore, when one language differs from another language it’s asinine to take the position that an error has been made. Furthermore, taking me to the Greek to show me how it differs from the KJV, would be the equivalent of me taking you to the Hebrew to show you how it differs from the Greek. Supposing that these differences equate to error. Foolish.
Therefore, You either believe what God says, or man. You either believe that God has magnified His word above all his name or you don’t. You either believe that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word of God, or you don’t. Do you see how this is a FAITH based position?
As it is written, “faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.” Faith does not come by the translators of any bible, or any man. How is it that you believe that God created Heaven and Earth, Man and Beast, Angels and Universe at large; How can you believe that God was manifested in flesh, walked on water, opened the eyes of the blind, healed the sick, died, was buried, and resurrected, and ascended to the right hand of the Father; And yet, you don’t think he can PRESERVE His word? That somehow, men were able to outwit God in this area. Foolish.
If you are wondering why I have spent this much time talking about the word of God prior to discussing Easter vs Passover and the KJV, it’s because this as you will see is the real issue. It goes back to Genesis Chapter three. The very first question ever posed in scripture, “yea hath God said”
There are scores of commentaries out there on Acts 12:4. And almost all of them say Easter is a mistranslation. The KJV is the only Bible on the shelves that has the word Easter in it. But it doesn’t stop there. Aside from the KJV and the NKJV I am almost certain the other versions removed Calvary and Lucifer as well.
Why? Let me guess, the KJV is old, outdated and uses archaic words that contemporary English speakers are not familiar with.
You mean like 1 John 5:7 one of if not the most clear passage in defense of the Trinity. And the KJV is the only Bible that has that verse to my knowledge. And in that passage it says, “For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.”
Are there any THEES or THOUS in that verse? What about ARCHAIC words? Is that verse not considered modern or contemporary? So why do the other versions leave it out?
What about Daniel 3:25, this is the clearest passage in the OT pertaining to Jesus Christ the Son of God.
Nebuchadnezzar said, “He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.”
The newer versions say, Nebuchadnezzar said, the fourth looks like a son of the gods.
You know what this reminds me of, Yea hath God said.
The KJV says, Jesus is the only Begotten Son of God, the modern versions say He is the One and Only Son of God. Well which one is it? Again, yea hath God said.
Well let’s look at what God said concerning Passover, the days of Unleavened Bread and the word Easter in Acts 12:4
The scriptures I will be dealing with moving forward, primary, will center around Acts 12:1-4. Other scriptures will be addressed as well in connection to these verses.
In acts 12:1-4 we read the following.
Acts 12:1-4 (KJV)
1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth [his] hands to vex certain of the church. 2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
4 And when he had apprehended him, he put [him] in prison, and delivered [him] to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
Now, I am going to clearly demonstrate the following things
- The Days of Unleavened Bread are completely separate from the Day of Passover.
- Peter was taken into prison after the Day of Passover
- Easter and Passover are not the same.
Point #1: The Days of Unleavened Bread are completely separate from the Day of Passover.
For starters, the OT teaches that the Day of Passover takes place before the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Leviticus 23:1-6 proves that the Passover occurs on the 14th day of the month and that the Feast of Unleavened Bread starts on the 15th of the month.
Leviticus 23:1-6, 1 And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, 2 Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, Concerning the feasts of the LORD, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, even these are my feasts. 3 Six days shall work be done: but the seventh day is the sabbath of rest, an holy convocation; ye shall do no work therein: it is the sabbath of the LORD in all your dwellings. 4 These are the feasts of the LORD, even holy convocations, which ye shall proclaim in their seasons. 5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD’S passover. 6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.
Notice how the LORD said, “the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD’S passover.” and the LORD said, “the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.”
This proves my first point. “The Days of Unleavened Bread are completely separate from the Day of Passover.” What I am not saying is that they’re not celebrated in conjunction with one another. What I am saying is what the LORD said to Moses. Passover is the 14th day, and the feast of unleavened bread starts on the 15th day, or the day after Passover. Why is this distinction important? Let’s look at Acts 12:3 again.
“3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) “
I hope you read that with Leviticus 23:5-6 in mind. If you did, you will clearly see that AFTER he took Peter… THEN WERE THE DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD. What does that mean? It means that Passover (by default) had to have taken place already.
Which brings me to my next point.
Point #2: Peter was taken into prison after the Day of Passover
Look at Acts 12:3 again, it says, “And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)”
So AFTER he took Peter, it says, then were the days of unleavened bread. Regarding my previous point we looked at Leviticus 23: 1-6. To double down on this point let’s look at another passage giving the exact same details.
Num 28:16-17 – 16 And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the LORD. 17 And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten.
Now play close attention to these scriptures.
Numbers 9:9-12, 9 And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, 10 Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If any man of you or of your posterity shall be unclean by reason of a dead body, or be in a journey afar off, yet he shall keep the passover unto the LORD. 11 The fourteenth day of the second month at even they shall keep it, and eat it with unleavened bread and bitter herbs.
Notice how the LORD said, “they shall keep it, and eat it with unleavened bread and bitter herbs. What do we learn from this passage? One thing we learn is that unleavened bread was a part of the Passover meal. In essence, while the days of unleavened bread are separate from the day of Passover, even the Passover meal itself had to be eaten with Unleavened bread.
Why is this significant? It is significant because it demonstrates that the PASSOVER INCLUDED UNLEAVENED BREAD. In essence THE FEAST OF UNLEAVENED BREAD INCLUDES THE DAY OF PASSOVER. Nevertheless, Passover is still Passover, and the 7 days of unleavened bread are still the 7 days of unleavened bread. In short, the Feast of Unleavened Bread Includes Passover but Passover always comes first. Meaning, You cannot have the 7 days of Unleavened bread without first having the Passover.
Let me show this in scripture. In Matthew 26:17-18 it says, 17 Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover? 18 And he said, Go into the city to such a man, and say unto him, The Master saith, My time is at hand; I will keep the passover at thy house with my disciples.19 And the disciples did as Jesus had appointed them; and they made ready the passover.
The first day would have been the 14th day. Which is why Matthew said, “the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?”
Herein lies the confusion. It is a failure to see the distinction between the two events in their connection to each other. Just because the feast of unleavened bread includes passover, it does not mean that passover is no longer the first day. Therefore, it is an error to assume that Passover is all seven days when in reality, it has always been the first day of the feast.
Look at Acts 12:3 again, it says, “And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)” Notice how it says, “DAYS” of unleavened bread. Was it the second, third or fifth day? Who knows. Here is what we do know; Peter was taken during the DAYS; in which case, the DAY of Passover has to have already taken place.
Point #3. Easter and Passover are not the same.
Previously we looked at Acts12:3 by itself a few times, now we’re going to Examine it in connection with verse 4.
Pay close attention to the sequence of events.
Acts 12:3-4 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) 4 And when he had apprehended him, he put [him] in prison, and delivered [him] to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
- he proceeded further to take Peter
- Then were the days of unleavened bread
- he put [him] in prison
- and delivered [him] to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him
- intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people
Now, if Passover already took place (seeing as though he took Peter during the days of unleavened bread) how in the world can Easter be Passover? Remember, Passover is a single day. It’s not seven days or two days, it’s one day. Followed by the 7 days of unleavened bread.
Now, any dictionary or even the Catholic encyclopedia of things will clearly give you the etymology of the word Easter and its connection to pegan goddess. Nevertheless, It is not my intention, within this article, to tell you exactly what Herod was referring to when he said Easter. However, it is my intention to demonstrate that regardless of what Easter really means, it definitely isn’t the Passover. And as a last and final point, If Easter truly isn’t the correct word, why do so many Churches have an “Easter” service. Really think about the lack of integrity being displayed. The KJV is the only translation that has Easter in it. All other versions translate Easter in Acts 12:4 as Passover; and yet, everyone Has an Easter Service.
People who truly believe EASTER is a mistranslation, and people who do not even use the KJV, have an Easter service every year.
Conclusion
Either one Bible is right, or all of them are wrong. Passover is one day, not days. Therefore, Peter was taken after the day of Passover in which case if Herod wanted to bring him forth after Easter, Easter cannot be Passover because that day took place prior to Herod taking Peter. Passover is included in the days of unleavened bread but only has the first day. Passover is always associated with the first day of unleavened bread and not the days that follow.
With this in mind, consider what Acts 12:3-4 says in another version.
NKJV: “3 And because he saw that it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to seize Peter also. Now it was during the Days of Unleavened Bread. 4 So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four [a]squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover.”
Unlike the KJV we can clearly see an actual error in their text. They clearly did not read Leviticus 23; For if they did, they would have known that the DAYS Follow the DAY.
Thank you for reading.
God bless.
Love, Brother Marc.
